35 Heaven and earth will pass away, but my words will by no means pass away. (Matthew 24)
36 But of that day and hour knoweth no [man], no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. (Matthew 24 KJV)
36 But as to that day and that hour, no one knows, neither the angels of Heaven, except My Father only. (Matthew 24 GLT)
36 'And concerning that day and the hour no one hath known -- not even the messengers of the heavens -- except my Father only; (Matthew 24 YLT)
36 About and the day that and hour no one knows, nor the messengers of the heavens, except the Father alone. (Matthew 24 ED)
32 Concerning that day or the hour nobody knows, neither the angels in heaven nor the Son, but the Father.
33 Keep looking, keep awake, for you do not know when the appointed time is (Mark 13).
Most bibles translate these two verses more or less as above. But the Greek does not say this at all. The Greek word translated 'knows' is oiden . This is the 3rd person singular perfect tense of eido, which means 'I see' like the Latin 'Video'. The perfect tense is used for completed actions in the past. So oiden literally means 'he has seen' . Now either this Greek word 'oiden' is in the present tense or it is in the past tense.
To quote Liddell & Scott Greek Lexicon under 'Eido':
'To know:- the perfect tense "Oida", I have seen, as a present tense verb, in the sense I know, for what one has seen one knows.'
What this means is that: 'Concerning that day or the hour nobody knows' is a linguistically possible sense of the Greek, and this is where the confusion has arisen. But it is not what the Greek actually says, no, the exact literal translation is: 'Concerning that day or the hour nobody has seen (with his mind)' this being meant in the sense of 'Concerning that day or the hour nobody has known.' Young's Literal Translation of the bible has: 'Nobody has known', the Greek Interlinear Translation has 'Nobody has known'!
36 About but the day that and hour no one has known, neither the angels of the heavens nor the Son, if not the Father only
32 And concerning that day and the hour, no one hath known, no even the messengers who are in the heaven, not even the son, except the father (Mark 13 - Young's Literal Translation).
'No one has known', or 'Nobody has seen' has a whole different connotation from 'no one knows' or 'nobody knows', because it is actually saying 'nobody has known in the past'. So with the exact translation, it is evident that Jesus was simply saying that no creation had yet been granted a knowledge of the day or the hour from time indefinite up to that time, which was Nisan 11, 33 AD. In any event these two scriptures, seeing as they are written in the past tense cannot be a prohibition on future knowledge of that 'day' and that 'hour'.
No statement about past knowledge can be a prohibition on future knowledge
No man knows for certain the date of his marriage until he has become engaged
36 But of that day and hour knoweth no [man], no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. (Matthew 24 KJV)
36 But as to that day and that hour, no one knows, neither the angels of Heaven, except My Father only. (Matthew 24 GLT)
36 'And concerning that day and the hour no one hath known -- not even the messengers of the heavens -- except my Father only; (Matthew 24 YLT)
36 About and the day that and hour no one knows, nor the messengers of the heavens, except the Father alone. (Matthew 24 ED)
32 Concerning that day or the hour nobody knows, neither the angels in heaven nor the Son, but the Father.
33 Keep looking, keep awake, for you do not know when the appointed time is (Mark 13).
Most bibles translate these two verses more or less as above. But the Greek does not say this at all. The Greek word translated 'knows' is oiden . This is the 3rd person singular perfect tense of eido, which means 'I see' like the Latin 'Video'. The perfect tense is used for completed actions in the past. So oiden literally means 'he has seen' . Now either this Greek word 'oiden' is in the present tense or it is in the past tense.
To quote Liddell & Scott Greek Lexicon under 'Eido':
'To know:- the perfect tense "Oida", I have seen, as a present tense verb, in the sense I know, for what one has seen one knows.'
What this means is that: 'Concerning that day or the hour nobody knows' is a linguistically possible sense of the Greek, and this is where the confusion has arisen. But it is not what the Greek actually says, no, the exact literal translation is: 'Concerning that day or the hour nobody has seen (with his mind)' this being meant in the sense of 'Concerning that day or the hour nobody has known.' Young's Literal Translation of the bible has: 'Nobody has known', the Greek Interlinear Translation has 'Nobody has known'!
36 About but the day that and hour no one has known, neither the angels of the heavens nor the Son, if not the Father only
32 And concerning that day and the hour, no one hath known, no even the messengers who are in the heaven, not even the son, except the father (Mark 13 - Young's Literal Translation).
'No one has known', or 'Nobody has seen' has a whole different connotation from 'no one knows' or 'nobody knows', because it is actually saying 'nobody has known in the past'. So with the exact translation, it is evident that Jesus was simply saying that no creation had yet been granted a knowledge of the day or the hour from time indefinite up to that time, which was Nisan 11, 33 AD. In any event these two scriptures, seeing as they are written in the past tense cannot be a prohibition on future knowledge of that 'day' and that 'hour'.
No statement about past knowledge can be a prohibition on future knowledge
No man knows for certain the date of his marriage until he has become engaged
